273 TExES Health Science 6 – 12 Exam

The TExES Health Science 6 – 12 Exam is a certification examination that is designed to determine if an individual has the knowledge necessary to teach medical science related courses at the high school level within the Texas public school system. This exam assesses the individual’s knowledge of anatomy, clinical nutrition, gerontology, mental health, microbiology, pathophysiology, pharmacology, professional responsibilities, safety, and other similar topics related to the health care field. This exam is required in order for an individual to become certified as an entry-level health science technology teacher within the state of Texas. The exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions that are related to the following areas:

  • Academic Foundations (19%)
  • Medical Sciences (19%)
  • Occupational Knowledge (43%)
  • Professional Responsibilities (19%)

The exam-taker will have five hours to complete the exam and the exam will be scored on a scale of 100 – 300 with 240 set as the minimum score considered as passing for the exam. The Health Science 6 – 12 Exam is offered in a computer-based format and the registration fee for the exam is $131. However, there are usually other exams and fees that are required in addition to this exam in order to become certified as an entry-level health science technology teacher at the high school level within the state of Texas.

273 TExES Health Science 6 – 12 Exam Practice Questions

Sample Study Notes

1. Discuss the Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

Answer:
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is an agency within the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. Its purpose is to ensure safety and effectiveness in the manufacturing, packaging and labeling of food, medical and cosmetic products used by humans. The FDA also monitors the food additives and drugs given to animals. The FDA has the power and authority to approve, ban and control the marketing and distribution of these products. The agency charges fees to manufacturers who have applied for approval. In return, the FDA is required to meet specific “performance benchmarks” during the approval process. The FDA doesn’t actually test products; that is the manufacturer’s responsibility. The FDA reviews and verifies study data provided by the product’s sponsor. FDA doctors, statisticians, chemists, pharmacologists and scientists review the data from clinical trials, manufacturing specifications, drug stability tests, and labeling and packaging designs. The agency may accept and approve the product (when the benefits outweigh risks), declare it “approvable” (when minor problems need to be addressed before final approval) or declare the product “not approvable” because of concerns about the safety and/or effectiveness of the product.

2. Describe the Safe Medical Device Act of 1990.

Answer:
The Safe Medical Device Act of 1990 was enacted to protect the public from dangerous devices that cause harm or do not do what the manufacturer claims they do. It requires users of medical devices to report to the manufacturer and the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services when the item has “caused or contributed to a death, illness or injury.” This information cannot be used in a civil lawsuit unless the report contained false or misleading data. It requires the DHHS to keep records of how many times a user reports a problem; the response and subsequent action by the manufacturers; and the cost of implementation. The act covers instruments and machines that deliver some kind of health care, i.e. anything that is not a drug or other consumable metabolized by the body. The law describes these devices as “any apparatus, implement, machine, implant, or related article intended for use in diagnosing, treating, curing or preventing disease, or intended to affect the body’s function or structure.” This is a broad definition that includes virtually all medical devices used in patient care and treatment.

3. Define elder abuse and list common signs.

Answer:
Elder abuse is a single act, a pattern of actions, or lack of attention by a trusted partner, child, relative, friend, neighbor, health care provider or social worker that causes physical harm or psychological distress. Sometime the abuse is the continuation of a lifetime of domestic violence, starts after retirement or at the onset of a debilitating disease, or a chronic health problem. According to the National Center on Elder Abuse:

Suspicious bruises or other injuries; change in behavior; and restriction or limitation of visitors are signs of physical and/or sexual abuse.
When senior is agitated, withdrawn, unresponsive, or exhibits uncharacteristic behavior, it could be a sign of psychological abuse.
The following problems suggest a possibility of neglect: dehydration, malnutrition, weight loss, and untreated medical conditions; poor and unsanitary living conditions; soiled or inadequate clothing, and restricted access to eyeglasses, hearing aid, dentures, walker, or wheelchair.
Financial abuse is indicated by unexplained bank withdrawals; unauthorized use of bankcards or credit cards; “lost” checks or checks written as “gifts” or “loans”; abrupt changes in the will or power of attorney; odd investment decisions; and transfer or disappearance of valuable assets.
4. Describe the following types of elder abuse: physical abuse, psychological abuse, financial abuse, sexual abuse, neglect and abandonment.

Answer:

PHYSICAL ABUSE: hitting, punching, burning, pushing, kicking, restraining, or inappropriate confinement; also giving too much, not enough, or the wrong medication
PSYCHOLOGICAL ABUSE: shouting, frightening, blaming, humiliating, manipulating, threatening, or criticizing; telling lies to and about the person; spreading malicious gossip and betraying confidences; treating the individual like a child; isolating the individual from family and friends
FINANCIAL ABUSE: controlling access to monetary funds, real estate or personal property; changing the will or power of attorney; evicting the individual from his or her home
SEXUAL ABUSE: forcing the senior to participate in any sexual activity against his or her will
NEGLECT: depriving the senior of food, water, heat, clothing, comfort and medication
RIGHTS ABUSE: denying the rights of a senior who has not been declared incompetent by a court
ABANDONMENT: deserting a dependent senior, or leaving him or her alone when it would endanger his or her health or welfare
Note: samples cited are not all-inclusive.
5. Explain the involuntary detention of a patient.

Answer:
Texas law specifies when, why and for how long a patient can be detained involuntarily, as well as who has the authority to order the confinement. A police officer or licensed medical practitioner can order a person held for 72 hours for testing and evaluation. If further confinement is warranted, the patient must either voluntarily sign himself in to the medical facility; his family must approve the admission; or the primary care physician can order a second involuntary 72-hour hold. Even though he has been involuntarily confined, he has the same rights as a patient who has voluntarily admitted himself; he just cannot leave the facility freely. He is entitled to humane care without fear of neglect, abuse or discrimination. He can refuse medication, unless he is a danger to himself or others, or the court has ordered it because he is unable to make informed decisions. He can have visitors and private phone conversations, participate in religious services, and have access to reading and writing materials. He has a right to speak to a Patient’s Rights Advocate and his attorney.

6. List the reasons a person may be involuntarily detained.

Answer:
Texas has broad definitions of who can be held involuntarily for seventy-two hours for testing and evaluation. The most common reasons for involuntary confinement stipulate the person must exhibit one of the following behaviors:

The individual poses an immediate danger to himself, (i.e. be suicidal)
The individual poses an immediate threat to others (i.e. holding someone against their will and threatening to harm him); hearing voices “instructing” him to do harm qualifies
The individual has a mental disorder that could lead to irrational acts that might harm himself or someone else; the person ordering the involuntary detention must be able to identify and explain the reasons for the emergency confinement
The individual is gravely disabled in his ability to provide food, clothing, and shelter for himself, and no one can be found who is able or willing to help him. The person can be an adult or a minor. This definition does not necessarily apply to a homeless person. Other conditions must be present.
7. Give a brief history of bioethics.

Answer:
Medical ethics began with the Hippocratic oath and its admonishment to “do no harm.” In 1846 the American Medical Association (AMA) adopted its Code of Ethics. The horror of Nazi experiments during World War II was the impetus for the Nuremberg Code, which deals with the concept of informed consent from participants involved in any scientific or medical research study. During the 1970s there was an explosion of scientific breakthroughs in areas like genetic screening, fetal research and gene splicing that contributed to an increased interest in medical and scientific ethics. The International Association of Bioethics defines bioethics as “the study of the ethical, social, legal, philosophical and other related issues arising in health care and the biological sciences.” Bioethics considers moral and ethical issues stemming from clinical practice, research, technology and the use of limited funds. Bioethicists consider questions and controversies about the type, availability and distribution of treatment, the authority of the patient, medical staff and other interested parties, the concept of confidentiality, the parameters of intervention, and the consequences of genetic research and its potentially life-altering applications.

8. Discuss a “do not resuscitate” order.

Answer:
A “do not resuscitate” order (DNR) is a request not to have cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) if the heart isn’t beating or breathing stops. It is put in the patient’s chart by his physician. Medical personnel in all hospitals, attorneys, and clergy honor a DNR order and consider it ethically appropriate in certain situations. (FamilyDoctor.org.) The outcome of CPR depends on the patient’s medical condition, and while age is not a determining factor, in many cases, the older the patient, the more physical ailments are present, which means the success of CPR is problematic. If a patient is seriously ill or otherwise incapacitated, CPR may not work or may work only, and can leave the patient in worse shape due to brain damage. Depending upon the patient’s medical history and current health status, sometimes people prefer to have palliative care and do not want aggressive efforts taken to resuscitate them at the end of life. Any adult (or designated representative) can request a DNR order; a parent or legal guardian can request one for a dependent child.

9. Define the term “informed consent.”

Answer:
The American Heritage College Dictionary defines informed consent as an agreement “by a patient to a surgical or medical procedure or participation in a clinical study after understanding the medical facts and the risks involved.” The consent must be given freely, willingly and without fear of reprisal. It is only valid when the person is of sound mind, legal age and capable of comprehending the consequences of the agreement. Parents, guardians and those with medical power of attorney are legally allowed to give informed consent. Obtaining informed consent is a communication process between doctor and patient. It is vital the doctor talks to the patient; he shouldn’t send someone else. He should discuss:

The diagnosis
The purpose, risks and benefits
Available alternatives and their risks and benefits, no matter what the cost or whether health insurance covers the intervention
The risks and benefits of not agreeing
The patient must be given an opportunity to ask questions until he understands the nature of the intervention and all the potential risks and benefits of saying yes or no.
10. Define express consent, implied consent and general consent.

Answer:

EXPRESS CONSENT means the physician has obtained the patient’s permission before performing an examination, investigation, test or procedure; providing treatment; or prescribing medication. The patient has been informed about the purpose, benefits and risks of treatment. The patient is encouraged to ask questions until he understands the consequences of his decision.
IMPLIED CONSENT is trickier. Just because a patient is on the table does not necessarily mean he is giving the doctor permission to conduct an extensive or invasive examination. Non-verbal gestures and body language, as well as subtle forms of understanding and communication between doctor and patient, can imply consent. It is always best, unless it is an emergency, to explain what the patient is going to experience before it happens.
A GENERAL MEDICAL CONSENT is written permission for a range of medical interventions authorizing the person in authority to either give consent for medical intervention or actually to conduct the examination, order tests and provide appropriate treatment. It is valid and in force until the person who signed it revokes the permission in writing and sends the document to the appropriate person.